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Lord's Prayer ending
The last sentence in the traditionAL Lord's Prayer at Matthew 6:13 is "For yours is the kingdom and the power and the glory for ever and ever, Amen."

The 4th Century Vaticanus Greek Text does not have that line. That is why the Cathilics end the Lord's prayer with the word"evil".

The promoters of the Alexandrian Greek New Testament Text claim that line did not appear in the original because they contend that Vaticanus had the origina text. They say is was added later.

Is anyone ware of any evidence that the last line of the Lord's Prayer did, if fact, exist before the 4th Century.

Of course, the Peshitta has it, but what is the earliest date of it in ancient Greek manuscripts?

Hi Otto,

It seems that the Diatesseron (2nd century) which is translated into Greek and Arabic, also has this line.
Luke 11:4 does not have this ending and it seems a logic argument that the Matthew Gospel indeed was 'edited' not to end with the word 'evil'.

But this must have been in a very early stage.
Shlama' ograabe

Have a look in the Didache, you will find what you search... <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->
Quote:That is why the Cathilics end the Lord's prayer with the word"evil".

Otto, the Catholic liturgy has the line found in Mattew does the Greek Orthodox Liturgy, which dates to St. Chrysostom (340.407)
One thing I like about the Peshitta is that it has a combination of Alexandrian and Byzantine readings. To me, it seems likely that the original (whether in Greek or Aramaic) could possibly be a mixture of both.

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