Word play in aramaic and syriac

[memradya]

Shlama akhay,


i still think the best bet is scribal error, and thus, no big deal.

but we do know that the sonants Lamadh and Nun can interchange between Hebrew and Aramaic. for example, look at the Hebrew NATHAN (give), and the Aramaic NETEL (give), like we see all over the Peshitta Gospels. the Hebrew Nun becomes the Aramaic Lamadh. this happens within Hebrew, as well. so while i think the likely choice is to go with scribal error, there remains at least a slim possibility that RABBULI could be preserving the specific pronunciation of Maryam's curious delivery of the word.


Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy

So I agree with the last supposition: R-B-L-Y ,it's the pronunciation, Maryam own word.


First, Rabbouly is attested (cf Paul's last post) with Rabboulan. And it appears in Curetonian, Sinay, so it can't be an impossible lectio.

Second, Rabbouly is read in the Raboula gospel in the late 6th century (so before the Ishdad's commentary)

Third, It 's not impossible that Rabbouli (rare) became Rabbouni (common) by the hands of the scribes. The opposite is quite difficult. A confusion between the nun and the lamad is unbelievable because a lamad is two times taller than a nun and is higher than the others letters. And we don't see why a such mistake from the greek.

Fourth, the greeks and the coptics lectio (I don't speak of the armenian text with Rabbi) don't agree about the value of the vowel (Rabbouni, Rabbwni etc.) It shows that there's a perpetuel research of the original pronunciation, with some changes in every new manuscripts to find it.


I affirm that Maryam said to Jesus: rabboli as the eastern lecto testimonies it.