Genealogy of Mary and Jesus

[Thirdwoe]

The Greek and Aramaic agree. Both the Greek and Aramaic refer
to the first Joseph as "the man of Mary".

The English version wrongly assumes that the Father of Mary is her husband.

Do ancient language translations of the Greek, like the Latin and Coptic, translate the Greek word "andra", in a role specific term, such as the English did with "husband", and thus also wrongly assume the same as the English translators did?

And I think both the Aramaic and the Greek words could also mean "husband", just not being the usual term for such in each language?