11-05-2012, 05:39 PM
Thirdwoe Wrote::I also saw that the early Church taught that The Father was un-named in Scripture, indicating that they believed and were taught, from Apostolic times, that MarYa/YHWH was the pre-incarnate Name of The Messiah/The Word of God/Son of God, given to Moses.
Right, but, what do we then make of passages like Genesis 19:24,
"Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven," (NASB)
Indicating some sort of distinction, but both being called by the Divine Name. Then Lamsa's bible from the Peshitta has an itneresting reading,
"Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the presence of the LORD out of heaven"
Lessening the distinction and merely showing that the LORD / Marya is all present.
But then we go to the targums and read,
"Behold, then, there are now sent down upon them sulphur and fire from before the Word of the Lord from Heaven" (Jonathon)
"He turned (then), and caused to descend upon them bitumen and fire from before the Lord from the heavens" (Jerusalem)
What do you think?
PS - I really apreciate you sharing your thoughts on this matter as this is a subject I love and the textual evidence seems to be very strong for this.