08-07-2012, 03:33 AM
Hi Luc
I've often encountered the same argument that the language of the Peshitta differs significantly in dialect from what (presumably) was spoken during the first century in "Palestine". But I've not ever been given any texts to examine that imaginary dialect. And, the little Aramaic that the Greek text preserves, is identical to the language of the Peshitta.
I've publically challenged proponents of that theory, in particular I've asked that they demonstrate from the words of Christ or Paul, as preserved in the Greek text itself, the "palestinian" dialect differences. Their usual reply is that there just so happens to be no difference in those passages.
So I guess it's not really that different, after all. At least not in a demonstrable way by the adherents of that hypothesis.
I don't know about the personal notes in Aramaic only to jot them down later in a more complete Greek document. Who does this today? If I'm composing something in English ultimately, like an essay paper or doctoral thesis..I'm certainly taking notes in English.
Or, if I've taken English notes, I'm certainly not going to use them to compose an Aramaic document.
The languages are so radically different in thought (and, writing system) that I would just add time in orders of magnitude by attempting to mix them like that. It's just not worth it.
And I agree, that does little to explain the variants and errors we see in the different Greek texts.
+Shamasha Paul
I've often encountered the same argument that the language of the Peshitta differs significantly in dialect from what (presumably) was spoken during the first century in "Palestine". But I've not ever been given any texts to examine that imaginary dialect. And, the little Aramaic that the Greek text preserves, is identical to the language of the Peshitta.
I've publically challenged proponents of that theory, in particular I've asked that they demonstrate from the words of Christ or Paul, as preserved in the Greek text itself, the "palestinian" dialect differences. Their usual reply is that there just so happens to be no difference in those passages.
So I guess it's not really that different, after all. At least not in a demonstrable way by the adherents of that hypothesis.
I don't know about the personal notes in Aramaic only to jot them down later in a more complete Greek document. Who does this today? If I'm composing something in English ultimately, like an essay paper or doctoral thesis..I'm certainly taking notes in English.
Or, if I've taken English notes, I'm certainly not going to use them to compose an Aramaic document.
The languages are so radically different in thought (and, writing system) that I would just add time in orders of magnitude by attempting to mix them like that. It's just not worth it.
And I agree, that does little to explain the variants and errors we see in the different Greek texts.
+Shamasha Paul