08-06-2012, 04:25 PM
Shlama,
I tried to do a search but was unsuccessful. In the Aramaic of Mark 15:34, why is there a translation or interpretation of Messiah's words? If the Aramaic is the original, shouldn't there have been no need to interpret them like we read in Matthew?
Luc
I tried to do a search but was unsuccessful. In the Aramaic of Mark 15:34, why is there a translation or interpretation of Messiah's words? If the Aramaic is the original, shouldn't there have been no need to interpret them like we read in Matthew?
Luc