07-14-2012, 03:39 AM
:
Hi DC,
I found that Origen in the 230's A.D. had the reading "devil" in his Greek copy of the Greek NT for Acts 10:38, so it goes back at least that far in the Greek. I have not found the variant reading of "evil"...in ancient Greek copies as yet, but will keep looking, and in other ancient language versions...but in English, if we drop the "D" in "Devil", we get "evil", so... <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="" title="Wink" /><!-- s -->
Also, for Luke 8:12, check and look in the other two Gospel accounts that record this same statement, and see the various words used in the Greek and Aramaic. It's interesting.
Shlama,
Chuck
Hi DC,
I found that Origen in the 230's A.D. had the reading "devil" in his Greek copy of the Greek NT for Acts 10:38, so it goes back at least that far in the Greek. I have not found the variant reading of "evil"...in ancient Greek copies as yet, but will keep looking, and in other ancient language versions...but in English, if we drop the "D" in "Devil", we get "evil", so... <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="" title="Wink" /><!-- s -->
Also, for Luke 8:12, check and look in the other two Gospel accounts that record this same statement, and see the various words used in the Greek and Aramaic. It's interesting.
Shlama,
Chuck