07-29-2012, 02:12 PM
distazo Wrote:Paul Younan Wrote:Hi Distazo.
Yes, it could go either way but I still think the gentile/pagan meaning is meant in this verse simply because the church is inclusive of all nations. There is no reason to single out Arameans or Greeks, as apart from the church.
This verse makes sense with Jews, Christians and Pagans (armaye...not Aramaye) as three distinct groups.
Thanks. I still have doubts in 12:2
you have been pagans (hanpe)
(Etheridge) that ye have been pagans ; and have been, without distinction, led away after idols, in which there is no speech.
So, if Armaye means 'pagans' why did Paul not use that word in 12:2?
Shlama Akhi
Khanpa in Aramaic means literally "denier", like the Arabic Khanaf. See <!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=17&t=1765&start=0">viewtopic.php?f=17&t=1765&start=0</a><!-- l -->
Just like in English, there are many ways to say "unbeliever". Like pagan, unbeliever, idolator, heathen, etc.
In all languages there are many shades of meaning with synonyms like this. Khanpa, Armaya, Amma, etc. We try, when translating, to choose the best meaning within the context.
Within the context it makes no sense to single out Arameans or Greeks as apart from the "Church of God", since these ethnic groups were to be found within the Church. I believe the context here is one where it is listing faith groups. It makes sense to separate the (unbelieving) Jews and the Pagans from the Church, since both denied the Gospel.
+Shamasha