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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
#26
Hi Distazo.

Yes, it could go either way but I still think the gentile/pagan meaning is meant in this verse simply because the church is inclusive of all nations. There is no reason to single out Arameans or Greeks, as apart from the church.

This verse makes sense with Jews, Christians and Pagans (armaye...not Aramaye) as three distinct groups.
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Re: 1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted... - by Paul Younan - 07-28-2012, 03:24 PM

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