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1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted...
#25
Hi Paul,

Isn't it possible that just like today, in the middle-east many people are called 'arabs' while not meaning an ethnic group but a language group?
Jews had their 'language' (ivrait, aramaic with it's specific idiom because of the targum and visiting the SYnagogue, it could have been quite standard) and the other people in the middle-east spoke some aramaic dialect.

So, I can imagine that apostle Paul often adressed the groups in the Middle-East by mentioning the biggest denominator(s).
E.g. take Romans 2:9.
"first the Jews and also the Aramaye".
Strictly the jews as 'ethnic' expression or a religious expression is a huge discussion. The same must be applied, I think, to ARamaye. It's not the people who are 'from Aram' but some culture, which was unified by the language, just like Arabic today.

ps: Why the fuzz? There are already aramaic words for 'nations', 'foreigners', 'unbelievers' and none of them include 'armaye' as source. The Dutch translation, for pagans and gentiles, sounds quite hostile towards others.
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Re: 1 Corinthians Aramaic primacy doubted... - by distazo - 07-28-2012, 07:59 AM

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