07-20-2012, 06:22 PM
** BUMP**
Ok, I doubt Aramaic primacy for 1 Cor. but...now I doubt even my doubt <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="" title="Wink" /><!-- s -->
What?!?
Notice how the Byzantine tradition has 'Greeks' (hellesin) for 1 Cor. 1:22-24 and 10:32 BUT 'Alexandrian' text has the odd 'Gentiles' (ethnesin) discrepancy for verse 23.
Is this significant?
...and distazo:
The Aramaic for 'Aramean' and 'Gentile' is the same except the little symbols above the letters -- and are those 'Syame markings'?? -- And if they are Syame markings, that means they were not present in the earliest Peshitta texts, right?
Ok, I doubt Aramaic primacy for 1 Cor. but...now I doubt even my doubt <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="" title="Wink" /><!-- s -->
1 Corinthians 1:23 Wrote:[Nestle-Aland and Westcott-Hort ("Alexandrian")]: but we preach Christ crucified; a stumbling block to Jews, and foolishness to Gentiles (ethnesin)
[Byzantine texts]: but we preach Christ crucified; a stumbling block to Jews, and foolishness to Greeks (hellesin)
What?!?
Notice how the Byzantine tradition has 'Greeks' (hellesin) for 1 Cor. 1:22-24 and 10:32 BUT 'Alexandrian' text has the odd 'Gentiles' (ethnesin) discrepancy for verse 23.
Is this significant?
...and distazo:
The Aramaic for 'Aramean' and 'Gentile' is the same except the little symbols above the letters -- and are those 'Syame markings'?? -- And if they are Syame markings, that means they were not present in the earliest Peshitta texts, right?