07-31-2012, 03:06 PM
DrawCloser Wrote:Does 'armaya' have room in its meaning for 'Greek'?
Can the Zorban modifications be justified?
Hi DC.
It can be justified to an extent. It is gentile in general, so it can be applied to any ethnic group. It appears the translators took liberty to translate it to "Greek" where the context made sense for them to do so. It wound up making almost everyone a Greek, though, even in areas like Samaria and Syria, which is excessive.
In other places they left it as generic gentile. Note how this strengthens our theory about an underlying Aramaic source to these documents.
+Shamasha