Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
di MarYa hu Yeshu?
#1
Hi All,

I don't master the Aramaic grammar, but in 1 Cor 12:13 we read in all translations "that Jeshu is THE LORD".
However, isn't 'di' genitive? So, should this not be translated as 'from the Lord is Yeshu?'

This is not a theological question! I just want to make sure I understand it and have it right.
Reply
#2
distazo Wrote:Hi All,

I don't master the Aramaic grammar, but in 1 Cor 12:13 we read in all translations "that Jeshu is THE LORD".
However, isn't 'di' genitive? So, should this not be translated as 'from the Lord is Yeshu?'

This is not a theological question! I just want to make sure I understand it and have it right.

Hi Distazo,

Di is genitive when between two nouns: beth di malka (house of the king). In fact, the origin of the Daleth Proclitic is a shortened form of the Di genitive (as in "beth d'malka")

In the phrase "le'Memar D'MarYa hu Yeshu", the shortened Proclitic form of Di cannot be a genitive, as this does not fit the grammar and makes the Aramaic very unreadable. It is functioning there as "that", so it is expected that all translations should read that way. When you see a verb ("to say") right before it, and not include it, makes it impossible to understand the example. The phrase is "to say that" (le'Memar d') You have the Di between a verb and a noun. It is not between two nouns.

To say in Aramaic, "that of the LORD is Yeshu", you would need an extra Daleth proclitic:

"le'Memar d'd'Marya hu Yeshu" (to say that of the LORD is Yeshu)



+Shamasha
Reply
#3
Hi akhi Paul,

Thank you very much for the explanation!
Reply


Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 2 Guest(s)