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"Western five"
Zardak wrote
Quote:You cannot reasonably explain why those western five never made it to the Aramaic lands and still expect us to believe Aramaic primacy. I will now validate my assertion - If i write an important spiritual writing to God's chosen in China and it has been addressed directly to them, then clearly if it was first and foremost for the beloved Chinese believers and "addressed specifically to them" then i will be jumping on a plane as soon as i have finished writing it and taking it straight to them or sending it through priority registered post, right! So how come the "western five" never got to there destination and the Greeks got it first, did they intercept and ambush the apostles and steal it off them?? LOL

Zardak, go and research and see the Revelation was not accepted by western Synod into canon as it was counted an anonymous letter.
Then it was accepted. Then again excluded, then again accepted etc.etc. Did God did this and changed his mind all the time? Look as the leaves in paradise are used to heal sicknesses. And beside it says that there will not be any more pain, woe, cry... .Looks strange? Very strange. No wonder COE does not have the book in their canon.

I believe that COE reflects the very early stage of our Christianity.
Quote:I believe that COE reflects the very early stage of our Christianity.

Shlama Akhi Zardak:
As Ivan has correctly hinted at, the Western Five may very well have been written some time after the 22 book Aramaic Peshitta was delivered to the See of Babylon by the Apostle Thomas. If they were written any time close to the destruction of the Temple, the Apostles may not have been able to make a second delivery to the See of Babylon. I hope I have understood you correctly Ivan, however this point has been discussed on one of these forums. Perhaps Akhi Zardak, you should read more of the older forum topics and posts and you won't find us repeating ourselves to answer you. Much of what you have presented has already been discussed.
In very fact, the Church of the East had no knowledge of the Western Five for over 1000 years. I believe that Shamasha Paul Younan can verify this as factual.

Moreover Akhi Zardak, do you believe that II John and III John were written by the Apostle and Evangelist John, who wrote what is called in the west, I Epistle of John? I Epistle of John uses Mashikha d''gala (Aramaic) while II Epistle of John uses the term antichristos(Greek). Are these Epistles written by the same person, using both terms?

Stephen Silver

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