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Acts 10:36
#1
Shlama Akhay,

As most of you already know, the absence of Syame markings in the earliest Aramaic NT manuscripts caused many variations in the Greek manuscripts when it comes to singular vs. plural nouns.

Another marker by which we can prove the original language is the redundancy of the usage of the Daleth [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d[/font] Proclitic when compared to Indo-European languages like Greek and English.

In Aramaic grammar, the following phrases are very proper:
  • The present which [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d[/font] he received
    The word that [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d [/font]she spoke

Whereas in the Indo-European languages there is a preference for conciseness, and the same phrases would much more naturally be stated this way:
  • The present he received
    The word she spoke

Therefore, we would expect that if the GNT is a translation of the ANT, then it would make sense that some scribes would translate the redundant proclitic (even at the expense of the Greek), while others would naturally choose to leave it out to make for better Greek.

In Acts 10:36, we have two different readings among the various Greek manuscripts. I've listed the manuscript names in paranthesis next to the reading:
  • "You know the word which [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d[/font] he sent to the sons" (manuscripts - p74 S* C D E P Psi 945 1241 2495)

    "You know the word he sent to the sons" (manuscripts - Sa A B 81 614 1739)

The first GNT reading is not proper Greek, but it is the sort of Greek that one would expect in a translation from Aramaic.

Like the singular/plural inconsistencies which arose because of the lack of Syame markings, the Daleth Proclitic shows itself as an Aramaic vein beating underneath the Greek skin of the GNT.

The difference in the two readings is the inclusion or omission of "which" which is the due to the redundancy of the Daleth [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d [/font]Proclitic as found in the Peshitta reading of Acts 10:36.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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