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"Father forgive them NOT"
Can anyone tell me if the literal wording "Father forgive them NOT..." as found here in the Aramaic: <!-- m --><a class="postlink" href=""> ... qach23.pdf</a><!-- m --> , (which happens to be the same exact wording as in my Greens {Greek} Interlinear) is the correct understanding? Both versions assume the traditional wording in their simplified forms. "...Father forgive them for they DO NOT know what they are doing". The actual word order makes perfect sense to me since it is only a matter of time before Yeshua judges everyone: "Acts 10:42 And He ordered us to preach to the people, and solemnly to testify that this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead. I dont want to hear that Jesus is too nice to judge someone, I just want to know if Aramaic grammar somehow precludes the word for word interpretation. Lon Martin
Although it may appear that the 'for' [gar/geyr] comes after the 'not' in Luke 23:34, this is the standard usage of the word 'for.'
The 'for' in Greek and Aramaic always comes after the first word of a thought (usually as the second word of a sentence).
This is why it is impossible to interpret it as you have suggested.
Hi Lon. That reading is not proper Aramaic. The 'not' (negative) is always before the verb or adjective. See the Lord's Prayer for an example..."let us not enter into temptation"...
Thanks for the replies. I thought that Murdock and Etheridge had gone PC on this one. I'll change the wording on my online updated English version of those translations: The Testimony of Yeshua.
Thanks, Lon

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