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A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof
#33
IPOstapyuk, Take a plane flight to Ephesus today please, now when you get there, ring me and tell me what language they are speaking! Sheeesh! What you guys are saying, is that Aramaic was the dominant language in Greece and that Paul wrote to them all in Aramaic, and then by some astounding miracle, everyone in Greece migrated back to the Greek language, which is what they speak today. Did you actually read ACTS 21:37, go, read it, then come and tell me what it means, seeing as you won't take my clear, precise, articulate explanation. You guys are unbelievable!

If someone is so entrenched in their theories about whatever subject, they look down on everyone. Years of studying Aramaic primacy has been a waste of life. Spend your time serving God, and drop the unfounded thesis. Knowledge about what, irrelevant but interesting bits of history that can be bent to support Aramaic primacy if one really wants it to? Can i say what God said, is that by the rules? "Knowledge puffs up" And let me add to that, the puffed up bit means "proud" and pride blinds because a person is too puffed up to see the simple truth. I have given many relevant verses with pertinent explanations. Thats is all thats needed, intelligence and common sense, not puffed up pseudo intellectualism, and an obsessed interest in a theory. <!-- s:crazy: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/crazy.gif" alt=":crazy:" title="Crazy" /><!-- s:crazy: -->

Why did Paul say in his epistle to the Galatians: "Howbeit then, that when you didn't know God, you did service to them which are not God's." Devout Jews, and Proselytes were not worshiping idols were they, correct! So Paul was not writing to Jews, <!-- s:lookround: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/lookround.gif" alt=":lookround:" title="Look Round" /><!-- s:lookround: --> he was writing to majority GREEK SPEAKING GREEKS. How many more examples do you need. God gives us common sense. My Greek friend knows his own history well, as does my "ultra orthodox Jewish Rabbi historian father. You guys need to drop all the speculations, hearsay and conjecture. Yes the Aramaic is an interesting alternative which gives us a possible alternative at the "few" times the Greek is ambiguous, but thats all its good for.
You people are impossible. Do you really want the truth, i have given it. I can see you will be here until your 100 years old still researching, when the truth has been staring you in the face all along. I've give very relevant information and good explanations in all my posts, just read my posts again properly and use your brain this time, my answers contain everything one needs to quickly get to the truth of the matter. <!-- s:bigups: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/bigups.gif" alt=":bigups:" title="Big Ups" /><!-- s:bigups: -->
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Messages In This Thread
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-10-2012, 03:52 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-11-2012, 10:42 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-12-2012, 01:29 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-13-2012, 09:55 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-14-2012, 07:31 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-15-2012, 07:23 AM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-16-2012, 01:14 AM

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