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A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof
#10
IPOstapyuk, you might want to consider this, if the centurion "already knew" that Paul spoke Hebrew (which he didn't, because the centurion had only just arrived at the scene, and asked 'who is this man, and what has he done') and if he already knew the rioting Jews spoke Hebrew, then it would be an "extremely stupid question" for him to ask "Can you speak Greek" after Paul had asked "may i speak to the people" The centurions question was in response to Paul asking that question, therefore he was basically saying, "These people speak Greek, do you have the ability to converse in that language?" Subsequently that fact shows that the Greek language was still the primary and prominent language in Jerusalem at that time, just as my Greek friend and historian has told me, the Greeks when they took over, did not allow the Jews to use Hebrew as a language in everyday affairs and public life. And as such also makes more definite the fact that the Greek language was indeed the primary language in the lands of Greece (as if it wouldn't be for Greek people) like Ephesus Galatia Corinth etc which leads again to the fact that Paul would have been writing to those groups in there native language of Greek, thus disproving Aramaic primacy, quite simple really! Paul wasn't writing to converted Hellenist's (or Grecians as the King James puts it/ basically, Jews entrenched in Greek culture and language) why would the Greek empire and their people be speaking Aramaic you have to ask yourself, not only does it make no sense, but historians know this fact, which even laymen like me can ascertain by the beautifully simple observation that the people in those lands still speak Greek today!

The reason those Peshitta texts you mention mostly match is because they never got spread as widely as the Greek texts and that there was far fewer of them, but even then the discrepancies between the two branches of the Peshitta family show what happens when texts start to spread more widely, which happened to the Greek texts. These things are all very explainable my friend.


This bit will be answer for you to IPOstapyuk in relation to your question about what texts I prefer.
Burning one, It doesn't really matter what texts Mr Palin used or what his critics said: He took a base text which they deemed close to perfect, similar to the westcott and Hort text, then took all words and verses in dispute between texts, and then applied the mathematics to the text when the verse or word was either inserted or omitted and thus where able beyond any doubt, to ascertain and subsequently compile a brand new finished 100% correct text. Simply go and download it for your self, some introductory info is also included about it in the introduction. (numeric new testament-unleavenedbreadministries) this is the text i have used to do my translation. It was only released mid last year. The joy of knowing that I have a 100% perfect text in the language originally written by Paul makes me feel so content an elated. Lord Yehawah be praised!
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Messages In This Thread
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-10-2012, 03:52 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-11-2012, 10:42 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-12-2012, 01:29 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-13-2012, 09:55 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-14-2012, 07:31 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-15-2012, 07:23 AM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-16-2012, 01:14 AM

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