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A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof
Makes no sense whatsoever to me. It simply says to me that one of the scribes translating from Greek into Aramaic was very familiar with both languages and was careful to use the most obvious Aramaic transliteration for the Aramaic speaking audience. It works in exactly the converse as to why you state it as proof for Aramaic primacy. And the scribe who made that Satana spelling in the Greek was clearly influenced by his familiarity with the Aramaic language and probably a Jew who was well versed in both languages, but for the benefit of the Greek readers who understood Aramaic he slipped in the Satana variant. Hardly a proof of Aramaic primacy...sheesh.

Acts 31:27 is what i would call an overwhelming proof of Greek primacy. So why did the commander ask Paul if he could speak Greek. Because clearly the primary language in Jerusalem even for the Jewish crowd was Greek, and thus Aramaic was their secondary language. How i say, because Paul wanting to emphasize his Jewish heritage to get his point across and win the careful attention and affections of the crowd, then spoke to them in the Hebrew language, and as such (like it says in the verse) they became all the more quiet when they heard him speak to them in the Hebrew language. And logic would conclude that the reason they became all the more quiet was that they were surprised to hear it, and why were they surprised, naturally because as evidenced by their reaction, Greek was the prominent spoken language, as evidenced by the commander assuming Paul would speak Greek to a "primarily" Greek speaking audience, despite the fact they were Jews. Quite simple when you think about it, and actually quite amazing how God made sure it was recorded so that we could know the Greek was the original for anyone who has eyes to see... In fact that point alone is indisputable, and anyone saying otherwise is basically arguing that the sky isn't blue. The info in your opening post can be easily explained away, but my point cannot. Not to mention that Paul addressed a Greek speaking crown at the Areopagus in Athens and thus spoke Greek to them, it would be ludicrous to suggest the Gentiles and Greeks in Athens at that time were speaking Aramaic.

All this backed by the fact that Dr Palin, who tutored Albert Einstein, was a linguistics professor and expert in mathematics and spent 50 years, not a few months or three years, verifying beyond "ALL" doubt the multidimensional manifold mindboggling mathmatical code behind the Hebrew and Greek text, and part of that code involved how the Greek tied in with the Hebrew text "mathematically" you can download it at unleavenedbreadministries... just type "numeric new testament" to make sure you get the right website in Google.

And on top of all that, someone mentioned earlier how the simplest things can prove the bigger thing. Well indeed, why do Greeks speak Greek today, because they have been doing it for the past 2500 years from the same place, thats why, whether Ephesus or Corinth or Colossae, all were speaking Greek as they still do today, and thus another simple proof as to what language Paul wrote to his Greek speaking Gentiles, to whom indeed God sent him.

Additionally, you don't think God was so incompetent as to see to it that all the Christian nations today got a third hand translation from and second hand text do you, the very nations of whom God fulfilled his promise to Jacob and Abraham. Surely scores of western theologians scholars and historians have got more than half a brain in relation to these matters...don't you think?

I've just finished translating the Greek new Testament after seven long hard arduous years, i'm so familiar with the text now its ridiculous, while cross comparing some of the Aramaic it simply doesn't work. And by the Spirit of God "in" me, i know without a shadow of a doubt that the Greek is God's authentic original word, many things in the Greek identify with God's Spirit in me, where the Aramaic falls over.There's a fluency and consistency and substance in the Greek pertaining to spiritual matters that falls over when one ties to translate it to from the Aramaic. Christians aren't "saints by calling" they are "saints who are called"

And how about this, the fact that there are many things alluding to the Aramaic language in the Greek texts and that better articulateness in word differentiation in the Aramaic is achieved, only shows that the writer was often speaking to the readers about Hebrew matters, and that the Greek language struggled to convey such things, and also that the Paul the writer was conveying his spiritual background and culture and language into an inferior receptor language.

All this said, there is no "genuine" proof for Aramaic primacy at all, in fact, quite the contrary.

This is not mean't to be an antagonistic disrespectful reply, i am merely being forthright and stating my case. Godspeed, the grace of yeshua be with you. <!-- s:| --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/neutral.gif" alt=":|" title="Neutral" /><!-- s:| -->

Messages In This Thread
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-10-2012, 03:52 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-11-2012, 10:42 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-12-2012, 01:29 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-13-2012, 09:55 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-14-2012, 07:31 PM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-15-2012, 07:23 AM
Re: A Freakishly Simple Primacy Proof - by Zardak - 01-16-2012, 01:14 AM

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