Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
The Lord or our Lord?
Shlama Khulkon:
In I Thessalonians 4:1 is quoted "baMaron Yeshua", translated as "in/with/within our LORD Yeshua".

Stephen Silver Wrote:Shlama Akhi Judge:
Nice to see you back after a short hiatus. Consider the way I Corinthians 12:3 is phrased.

"d'Maryeh hu Yeshua"

"dalet-mem-resh-yud-alef.....heh-vav.....Yud-shin-vav-ayin", "that LORD he (is) Yeshua".


Thanks for that welcome.
I think, and i could be wrong, that throughout the NT the authors including Paul do reserve the term "the lod" for yahweh in a way that the hebrew bible does. It might be that as jews they did this out of custom.
Yet, at other times, Paul wishes to say that Jesus is to be identified with Yahweh (which I must confess I don't understand although perhaps its true in a way I just dont understand )

How would you see this Stephan? Am I close do you think or missing something?
Shlama Akhi Judge:
The Sh'ma, is the first scribal revelation of the Unity of YHVH Elohim. Yeshua Mashikha is the living manifestation of what the Sh'ma declares.

"In whom dwells all the fullness of the godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:8-9).

Yeshua is the living Manifestation/WORD (Miltha) of Alaha/Elohim, as in John 1:1-1:17. The Aramaic always uses the singular, Alaha, while the Hebrew spoken in the Land during the First Commonwealth of Israel was Elohim. It was Ezra the Scribe at the beginning of the Second Commonwealth of Israel that oversaw the use of Adonay for YHVH and so on. The response to Abram by Melkhezedek, in the presence of the king of Sodom was of El Elyon (God most high) and Abram responded with YHVH El Elyon found in (Genesis 14:17-22)


Forum Jump:

Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)