08-20-2011, 09:53 PM
WHAT is up with Mr. Lamsa's Peshitta Translation?
In all these 9 places in the Eastern Khabouris Codex Peshitta text, where it does NOT contain the clarifications...it seems that Mr. Lamsa goes to the Greek text and ADDS them into the Aramaic Text???...he does this 8 out of the 9 times...John 1:41 being the exeption.
Can someone tell me why he does this? Or is there another Aramaic Peshitta Text which have these 8 additional clarifications... other than the Khabouris Codex and the 1905, which I have checked... where I do not find these 9 clarifications present.
Now...either Mr. Lamsa has a different Peshitta he has translated from...or his translation is a Aramaic/Greek hybrid translation...
..
In all these 9 places in the Eastern Khabouris Codex Peshitta text, where it does NOT contain the clarifications...it seems that Mr. Lamsa goes to the Greek text and ADDS them into the Aramaic Text???...he does this 8 out of the 9 times...John 1:41 being the exeption.
Can someone tell me why he does this? Or is there another Aramaic Peshitta Text which have these 8 additional clarifications... other than the Khabouris Codex and the 1905, which I have checked... where I do not find these 9 clarifications present.
Now...either Mr. Lamsa has a different Peshitta he has translated from...or his translation is a Aramaic/Greek hybrid translation...
..