03-24-2011, 10:47 AM
I would more be interested in a hint why vers 15 ends with
let nobody suffer as one who is "charged/interferes with other ones affairs." (or something like that)
This makes NO sense to me. I don't know anybody who suffers because of that.
The Peshitta has 'let nobody suffer as a criminal'. Well, this makes sense.
So, can we prove that the Greek is a (wrong) translation of the Syriac?
let nobody suffer as one who is "charged/interferes with other ones affairs." (or something like that)
This makes NO sense to me. I don't know anybody who suffers because of that.
The Peshitta has 'let nobody suffer as a criminal'. Well, this makes sense.
So, can we prove that the Greek is a (wrong) translation of the Syriac?