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But was Luke originally written in aramaic?
#1
According to information in introduction/Peshitta on this site "... the Church of the East received the scriptures from the hands of the blessed Apostles themselves in the Aramaic original..."

But was Luke originally written in aramaic?

Surely this cant be true as the document was dedicated to one "most honorable Theophilus," (Luke 1:3), a very Roman sounding name.

This document must have been drafted much later because the author claimed: "...many have desired to have in writing the story of those works with which we are familiar..." which were "handed down to us".

If we accept this statement then Luke cant have been written by the apostles because the stories were handed down to him.
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#2
This boils down to a simple question:
Would the author write in author's native language (recording his thoughts with precision and finesse) or in the audience's language?
And this question can be expressed in more relevant terms as this: (in which I make an assumption here that Luqa's native language was a form of Aramaic/Hebrew)
Was Luqa writing this only for testimony to 'Theofila' (Friend of Elohim, the Greek equivalent of R`ueil [that is Reuel]) or for a wider audience? And if for a wider audience, would the large Parthian presence east of Euphrates simply have fled his mind? And if not, would he rather write in a form native to him and understood by them or write in Greek to be interpreted back to something resembling his mother tongue?

I give no answers here but questions to provoke thought. Keep in mind that it's possible that Luqa had a hand in both Aramaic and Greek formulations of the text.
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#3
dph987 Wrote:Surely this cant be true as the document was dedicated to one "most honorable Theophilus," (Luke 1:3), a very Roman sounding name.

This document must have been drafted much later because the author claimed: "...many have desired to have in writing the story of those works with which we are familiar..." which were "handed down to us".

If we accept this statement then Luke cant have been written by the apostles because the stories were handed down to him.


This argument holds no position <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
Lots of names in our time are from foreign origin. Lots of Jews had Greek names and probably, names were given just as in our time, named to famous people like Alexander the Great.


Secondly, Theophilus IS a latinized name. In the Peshitta it is Theophil.

As with many names, in english Bibles, the Greek names were Latinized. Petros became Petrus, Paulos became Paulus (in Dutch) etc.

Would you not think, then, that Petrus had Latin as mother tongue?

The fun thing is, the one who wrote : Maran Atha (The Lord has Come!) had a Latin name, but we can be sure that he did not speak Latin <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
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#4
Shlama,


having been written to Theophilus, and considering some of the things that are included in Luwqa's account that are not found in the others, i am of the opinion that the intended recipient was actually the Jewish high priest who was named Theophilus and lived during that particular time. too much lines up regarding content and timeframe to make any better sense otherwise. history bears out the existence of a high priest with this name who lived during this period, and who was likely a Sadducee, so that all the "spiritual" and "afterlife" passages found in Luwqa's account make even more sense for being included in effort to show this denier the reality of what awaits man, especially if he would place his hope in Messiah.

just my thoughts.


Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
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#5
You might want to look at these, which are evidences for an Aramaic original .

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Cheers <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
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