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Philoxian vs harklean Revelation
#13
distazo Wrote:There is a lot more to say about the 5 books.

Take 3 john. A short letter which contains 3 differences which make the letter more clear.

Were they 'harmonized' or corrupted by a scribe to make the crawford codex sound superior ot the Greek 3 john? If that is true, that could be said of the whole peshitta <!-- sWink --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/wink1.gif" alt="Wink" title="Wink" /><!-- sWink -->

Revelation contains real jewish words while the greek has descriptions.

1: 15.And his feet were in the form of the brass of
Lebanon
which is heated in a furnace, and his
voice was like the sound of many waters.

Greek has '?Burnished brass' and bad grammar.

1:13 And in the midst of the menorahs as the
likeness of a man, and he wore an ephod and
he was girded around his chest with a golden
wrap

Greek has 'fine linnen'
There are too many samples to dismiss this crawford codex as a translation of Greek.

Shlama:
I don't buy it. The Book of Revelation was not revealed to the Assyrian Church of the East until the Middle Ages. The II Epistle of John spells Antichrist as antichristos while the I Epistle of Peter uses the phrase "Mashikha d'gala". If they were written by the same author then why is the I Epistle of John spelled in the Semitic form while the II Epistle of John spelled in the Greek form? I John is written originally in Aramaic while II John is written in Greek and translated or originally written in Greek. The Book of Revelation did not appear to the Assyrian Church of the East till the Middle Ages. They had no knowledge of it. However the W-5 and Psalms are in the modern Peshitta (Little Red Book). With a discrepancy that leaves the W-5 out of the Aramaic Peshitta it is difficult for me to believe that it was in the Aramaic Peshitta when the Apostle Peter handed the 22 book Peshitta to the elders in Babylon. So, I will go with the 22 book Aramaic Peshitta. One has to find a more convincing way to explain the Aramaic words which were translated from the Greek. It's possible that the Greek Scribe had an excellent background in Aramaic when he tramscribed the Book of Revelation. There is sone evidence that the Book of Revelation existed as far back as the II Century A.D. while Aramaic was a living language and was well understood and could be easily translated while using the Aramaic idioms.

Shlama,
Stephen Silver,
Dukhrana Biblical Research
<!-- w --><a class="postlink" href="http://www.dukhrana.com">www.dukhrana.com</a><!-- w -->.
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Messages In This Thread
Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by distazo - 12-28-2010, 07:37 AM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by distazo - 12-28-2010, 09:48 PM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by distazo - 12-29-2010, 07:25 AM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by distazo - 01-05-2011, 11:32 PM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by Stephen Silver - 01-06-2011, 12:15 AM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by distazo - 01-06-2011, 12:46 PM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by ograabe - 01-06-2011, 09:19 PM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by distazo - 01-07-2011, 01:02 PM
Re: Philoxian vs harklean Revelation - by Andrej - 01-07-2011, 02:51 PM

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