11-19-2010, 11:07 PM
I wonder, how much does the Peshitta differ in language from the language of Yeshua.
It's clear that Paul (Shaul) freely traveled and went to cities where he spoke Aramaic, besides greek, but also that Yeshua spoke to people in his language and they understood each other.
The posessed man at the Gadarenes, the syrophoenician woman, and people in Jerusalem, they understood Yeshua.
Lets assume that the apostles wrote gospels and letters, what would their language and their script have been?
Now, odessa comes in the picture. For some reason, they decided to standardize the script and to use Estrangelo.
How big would that step have got the original text into Syriac?
Would that be a translation or just a copy using another script (estrangelo?)
Thanks for any views on this.
It's clear that Paul (Shaul) freely traveled and went to cities where he spoke Aramaic, besides greek, but also that Yeshua spoke to people in his language and they understood each other.
The posessed man at the Gadarenes, the syrophoenician woman, and people in Jerusalem, they understood Yeshua.
Lets assume that the apostles wrote gospels and letters, what would their language and their script have been?
Now, odessa comes in the picture. For some reason, they decided to standardize the script and to use Estrangelo.
How big would that step have got the original text into Syriac?
Would that be a translation or just a copy using another script (estrangelo?)
Thanks for any views on this.