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1611 KING JAMES NAME translation
I was reading the 1611 king james looking to see any difference's in the translation and found this [Luk 4:27 And many lepers were in Israel in the time of [Elizeus] the Prophet: and none of them was cleansed, sauing Naaman the Syrian.] The name of Elijah had been translated to Elizeus thought it was very weird thinking they were trying to mix greek pagan mythology with Yahewh's word. What do you guy's think.[Ti 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto Yahewh, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.]This what I and my family are trying to do find absoult truth and searching 2000 year's of history. SINCERALY MIKE KEMBLE
In Luke 4:27 it is "Elisha the prophet" (e:liyConfusedha n:bi:yau)
In Luke 4:25 & 4:26 it is "Elijah", pronounced in Aramaic as (i:li:yau)

So the 1611 KJV would be correct in making a distinction between the name in verse 27, and the one used in 25 & 26.
Sorry got the name's mixed up not perfect but still don't see how they use zeus on the name of Elisha dosen't make any sense.

the "zeus" ending has nothing to do with paganism. it is merely the effect of transliterating a Greek transliteration of an Aramaic transliteration of a Hebrew name. furthermore, proof of this is that Zeus is pronounced Dia in the Greek texts of Acts. the form of Zeus is a more modern pronunciation and cannot be used to link any Scriptural name to paganism.

hope that clarifies! <!-- sBig Grin --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="Big Grin" title="Happy" /><!-- sBig Grin -->

Chayim b'Moshiach,
Even so, it's odd that they transliterated as Elizeus the Greek text which clearly sounds like Elisayu. One would expect to see Elisaius or Elisaeus if depending on the Greek text. There's no reasonable explanation for how Elisaiou became Elizeus, but the latter revision of the translation remedied the issue with Eliseus, which is pretty close to how they would transliterate it; they usually transliterate the Greek ai diphthong with ae, thus Elisaeus. It's really nothing to ruffle feathers about in any respect. It's just an anomaly.

As for the 2Timothy 2:15 translation, I agree that the translation job here is somewhat loose: The word translated to 'study' means 'labor'. Though the part which says 'rightly dividing' does relate to the Greek text, which can also be translated 'cut straight', but is better translated 'direct your paths' in light of the Septuagint usage. Though all of these translations dissent from the Peshitta text reading which says clearly 'rightly proclaim'. Note that the King James text reading 'rightly' is coincidental, as it's not found in the Greek text.
I noticed that also. Based on a chart I have for biblical Greek text, it would sound something like e-li-sai-u, the "ai" as in "aisle". The omicron-upsilon (OY) ending is supposed to sound like "u", as in "rude".

The KJV I have, which is a fairly late edition, also uses Eliseus. So they must use a different methodology of some sort for their transliterations, to end up with the "s" ending.

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