12-03-2010, 12:01 AM
I have lost track of what the latest claim for MarYah is, but does it reconcile with the matter of Yeshua being called MarYah in the New Testament? For example, in John 8:11 and Revelation 22:20.
And does it reconcile with the two instances in Matthew 22:43-45 where MarYah is not used in reference to YHWH, but instead to David's "my lord".
Originally, it seemed likely to me that the reference being used for YHWH (maur:yau`) was a unique designate for YHWH, but I found that I couldn't reconcile it with those instances. So instead, I have settled for (maur:yau`) being just a grammatical nuance to (maurau`), maybe turning it into a type of a denominative emphatic. One that works so far, along with a few others, is "that of Lord", with (maurau`) being just "the Lord".
And does it reconcile with the two instances in Matthew 22:43-45 where MarYah is not used in reference to YHWH, but instead to David's "my lord".
Originally, it seemed likely to me that the reference being used for YHWH (maur:yau`) was a unique designate for YHWH, but I found that I couldn't reconcile it with those instances. So instead, I have settled for (maur:yau`) being just a grammatical nuance to (maurau`), maybe turning it into a type of a denominative emphatic. One that works so far, along with a few others, is "that of Lord", with (maurau`) being just "the Lord".