"MarYah deception" ???

[justalex]

I asked this question before and really got no answer so I'll just ask it again...

Why is it in the scriptures you do not find "Jesus" saying He is The FATHER but quite the opposite. He prays to His FATHER, He asks His FATHER to make the discples "one", He tells His FATHER "into your hands I commit my spirit, He even tells His disciples that They would not ask Him for anything but that they would ask The FATHER in His (Jesus') name etc... I'm sure if I could take the time to type all of the passages with similar sayings from "JESUS" Himself.

So if He and His Father are one and the same (marya/maryah) the scriptures just do not bear out the same thing. Does anyone have an explanation of why "Jesus" would be prayihng to Himself or committing His spirit into His own hands?

justalex

Does anyone have an explanation of why "Jesus" would be prayihng to Himself or committing His spirit into His own hands?

Well, scripture never say this. It plainly tells us that He prayed and commited his spirit to the Father.

Why is it in the scriptures you do not find "Jesus" saying He is The FATHER but quite the opposite

Here it is plainly:

John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?

So if He and His Father are one and the same (marya/maryah) the scriptures just do not bear out the same thing.

Scripture does bare record that they "... are one and the same (marya/maryah)" as you've worded it.

There is only ONE YHWH/YHVH deity. And, it is only by the thanks of Y'shu/Jesus informing us that YHWH is composition of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit (Mat 28:19) that we have come to know and speak to YHWH as Father and as Son (Joh 1:18). It is also noted in script that He angered many by continuely calling YHWH his Father and referring to himself as his Son exclusively (Joh 8:23). By John's witness we have Y'shu (refered to as the Word) as being WITH YHWH Elohiym(plural) and declared also as YHWH Elohiym(plural) (John 1:1).

He prays to His FATHER, He asks His FATHER to make the discples "one", He tells His FATHER "into your hands I commit my spirit, He even tells His disciples that They would not ask Him for anything but that they would ask The FATHER in His (Jesus') name etc...

Your problems/questions seems to stem, IMO, from the lack of understanding concerning the composition of devine nature of YHWH(reverently refered to as mrya in the Peshitta text).

Please consider the following passages:

Gen 1:26-27, 3:22, 11:7, 18:1-5

Furthermore, as a tell all, tell all ...YHWH has said:

Isa 42:8 I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images.

Isa 48:11 For mine own sake, even for mine own sake, will I do it: for how should my name be polluted? and I will not give my glory unto another.

And we find in scripture Y'shu/Jesus receiving glory from ALL creation:

Rev 5:13. And EVERY CREATURE which is in heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and such as are in the sea, AND ALL that are in them, heard I saying, Blessing, and honour, and glory, and power, be unto HIM that sitteth upon the throne, and unto the LAMB for ever and ever. 14. And the four beasts said, Amen. And the four and twenty elders fell down and worshipped HIM that liveth for ever and ever.


Peace in knowing Y'shu/Jesus

Did you miss where YHWH receives the glory FIRST then "AND the LAMB"??? Clearly two separate entities... Have you not read where "Jesus" said "all things have been given into my hands" so yes He would receive blessings... Did you not know that "Jesus" had "glory" as of the only begotten Son of YHWH???

I'm guessing the answer to all the above is NO... and you still didn't answer the question... To whom did "Jesus" commit His NPhSh if He is YHWH??? HIMSELF???

justalex