"MarYah deception" ???

[justalex]

So if He and His Father are one and the same (marya/maryah) the scriptures just do not bear out the same thing. Does anyone have an explanation of why "Jesus" would be prayihng to Himself or committing His spirit into His own hands?

The ACOE teaches that a certain separation exists between His humanity and His Divinity (ie: the ACOE holds a strictly Diophysite Christology) and also a certain degree of separation between the Divinity of the Word and that of the Father even though they are of the same essence (ie: no Arian or Sabellian heresy has ever been taught by the ACOE). He is not praying to himself as the Divine Qnuma of the Word, he is praying to his Father the first Divine Qnuma from which he was begotten from and was eternally with from the beginning, just as plain scripture says. Therefore there is no contradiction. If anybody from the ACOE wishes to correct me on anything please do.

gbausc wrote:The latter form is used only of THE LORD God, and in the Peshitta Version of The O.T. represents the Tetragrammaton.
Paul Younan has given Orham's Dictionary definition, and Jennings has the same definition as Smith's.



once i find incontrovertable evidence to that, i will happily acquiesce to the idea. as for now, i'm open to wondering.

I agree with Jeremy. I believe MarYah is an abbreviation, but the actual Tetragrammaton ? That's new to me Dave, please, I too am interested in this. Show us the proof for this claim Akhi.

Rafa,

Thank you for your response...

"The ACOE teaches"? Unfortunately I don't go by what someone happens to teach but what the scriptures themselves say. That particular teaching comes from the Council of Chalcedon in 451 A.D. and was also seen as the same as Nestorianism.

So your answer is what someone teaches. Are there any scriptures where "Jesus" says such is the case? I think that was part of my original question if it was not, then I mistakenly omitted it. However the scriptures say in Hebrews that ""Jesus" was made a man for the suffering of death." It makes no mention of His divinity.

In fact, if he was indeed still divine, how did he not know the time of His own return?

justalex