"MarYah deception" ???

[whathell]

Actually yes it was Philip however the Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon (CAL) lists both mry and mry` as having the definition of "master" not YHWH or Lord Yah and yes Aaron it (mry`) is found there also.

John 1:1-11, commonly found in the Greek source text, with the story of the woman taken in adultery has never been in the original Aramaic Peshitta.

So, how could CAL, concerning the original Aramaic Peshitta, reference John 8:11 for a word "lord/master"?

Also of note, in Maaseh Shlichiym 9:27 Shaul says he has seen, "l`marya" on the road to Damascus however that would contradict Yahuchanan/"John" Aleph 4:12 that "no man has seen YHWH at any time".

More completely, straight from the interlinear Peshitta text, it is written:

John 1:18 - God, not has seen man ever, the Only-Begotten God, He who is in the bosom of His Father, He has declared Him

Also, please consider...

John 14:8 - Said to him Peleepos, our Lord, show us the Father and it will satisfy us...
said to him Yeshua, all this time I am with you, and you do not know me Peleepa? Whoever sees me sees the father, and how do say you "show us the father?"

And also, isn't that "l'mryh" in Maaseh Shlichiym/Acts 16:16 and "mryh" in Maaseh Shlichiym/Acts 16:19 and both times it is speaking of the young girls "human" masters. This is actually the first time I have seen the entire acronym "mryh" used at all, I don't know if if it's used anywhere else.

Has anyone else seen this?

Neither of the words mryh(lords) or lmryh(masters) would be a place holder for YHVH/YHWH. The Peshitta seems to have distinctively set mrya only for YHVH/YHWH throughout it's text from it's very origin. Which btw positively id's the early disciples knowledge of Y'shua being both man and YHVH/YHWH (John 1:1,14).

A "placeholder"? A "placeholder" for the name of YHWH. Well why not just stick with "lord" and "god" since you're using "placeholders" anyway. You don't need a foreign language to have "placeholders". I wonder why YHWH gave us HIS NAME, HIS INEFFABLE NAME, if HE wanted us to use
"placeholders"? However, if a "placeholder" is ok for you, then so be it unto you.

Stay in peace. justalex

A "placeholder"? A "placeholder" for the name of YHWH. Well why not just stick with "lord" and "god" since you're using "placeholders" anyway.

There're translations which do just that sort of thing. For example, KJV.

You don't need a foreign language to have "placeholders".

You do if the source language in which the place holder text exist is foreign to your native tongue

I wonder why YHWH gave us HIS NAME, HIS INEFFABLE NAME, if HE wanted us to use
"placeholders"?

I think that would be a good question to put to those who actually scribed the ancient Aramaic Peshitta text.

However, if a "placeholder" is ok for you, then so be it unto you.

Finally, we arrive at the true purpose of your Strawman argument.

Did I ever say it was "OK" or did I merely point-out the "FACT?"

Furthermore, If the word "placeholder" is the only thing you took from my post, it is obvious that you read it looking for fault instead of dealing with information or to answer the question (of note is that you didn't even mention any of the passages). If you don't have an answer then what really was the reason to quote any of it at all?