11-24-2010, 02:59 AM
I'm a bit off topic here, but the woman in John 8:11 is actually answering Yeshua with a question of her own. The verse is not as the translators translate it.
In my opinion, John 8:11 is similar to Matthew 22: 43 & 45, where moryo` is not used as a specific reference to YHWH. And in all instances of morayo`, which is the plural form of moryo`, it is not used in reference to YHWH. Contextually, it does not seem possible for moryo` to represent the personal name for YHWH or an abbreviated personal name for YHWH. Instead, both moryo` and morayo` are likely translational euphemisms little different form the KJV using the phrase "the Lord", as a euphemism for YHWH.
At most, moryo` may be a type of denominative emphatic as in "that of the Lord", instead of just the "the Lord". This would allow moro` to be "the lord", as I think it may be. If so, then morayo` would be "that of the lords", instead of "the lords". Currently, I lean towards it being a type of denominative emphatic.
In my opinion, John 8:11 is similar to Matthew 22: 43 & 45, where moryo` is not used as a specific reference to YHWH. And in all instances of morayo`, which is the plural form of moryo`, it is not used in reference to YHWH. Contextually, it does not seem possible for moryo` to represent the personal name for YHWH or an abbreviated personal name for YHWH. Instead, both moryo` and morayo` are likely translational euphemisms little different form the KJV using the phrase "the Lord", as a euphemism for YHWH.
At most, moryo` may be a type of denominative emphatic as in "that of the Lord", instead of just the "the Lord". This would allow moro` to be "the lord", as I think it may be. If so, then morayo` would be "that of the lords", instead of "the lords". Currently, I lean towards it being a type of denominative emphatic.