Couple of questions

[Andrej]

Hello everyone,

i have spent the last few days reading about Aramaic primacy. i am quite intrigued by what i have read. However, i do have a few questions that may appear dumb, and may have quite obvious answers for some of you, but i do not yet know much about this. Those questions may partially be answered somewhere in this forum, but, quite frankly, searching a forum is never as effective as advertised. Most of these questions are answered in 3-5 Words, so i trust you will not mind me asking them. i am fine if you just answer concisely and maybe post a link / refer to a book for an extensive answer.

So here we go:

1) i do know that Jesus spoke Aramaic, as well as the apostles, but i am kind of confused on the Syriac alphabet being used in the Peshitta, as i thought that in Jesus' times they exclusively used the Hebrew alphabet. i've also never seen any archaeological excavations from Jesus' time with Syriac writings. But, since i'm no linguist nor an archaeologist, what's the consensus on this, do you believe the Peshitta was written in Syriac alphabet, or was it transferred into Syriac letters later? Around what time? When were the vowel points added to the Syriac text?

2) What is the best way to approach Aramaic/Syriac studying for non-Syriac speaking people like me? i made use of the Peshitta at http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta. It is quite helpful and organized. Looking at the analysis (e.g. this one), i noticed a kind of number reference system (simply called "ID", like Strong's). Is that system widely established/accepted? Does anyone have a list of extensive dictionaries? Is there any software (i have the module for e-Sword, but that's kind of a very little start, considering i have access to so many resources on the Greek in programs like Libronix)?

3) From what time are the earliest Syriac manuscripts? From what time is the earliest complete Syriac NT (without Western five)? How many manuscripts are there? How many families?

4) Is there any information on how diverse the varieties between the manuscripts are? Is there much more unity between the texts as with the Greek (supposedly 99.5%)?

5) It is quite easily to comprehend that Matthew was written in Aramaic, with all the Church Fathers evidence. You could also persuade me on Hebrews, considering the unique style in the Greek, which may indicate translation, as well as the majority of the NT books.

But then, it seems hard to believe that this is true for any of John's writings (Making extensive use of fine intricacies of Greek grammar, especially in Revelation), or Luke's writings (written to a Greek man) were originally written in Aramaic; and then there are the "Western five" (including Revelation again) that (as i understand) are a translation from the Greek, which means the originals are either lost (anyone here believing in any form of divine preservation?), or written in Greek (which would still make the Greek superior?). And then there is Romans, written by Paul, apostle to the Gentiles, to the Church in Rome, consisting of Gentiles (Rom. 1:13-17). Why would he write Aramaic? Similar arguments can be made for some other books.

It does seem quite logical that the first NT books were written in Aramaic, but i do wonder, does anyone on this board believe (or did anyone seriously consider) that maybe a part of the New Testament was written in Aramaic, whereas a part was written in Greek?

6) Does anyone here believe that the NT should not contain the "Western five"? Does anyone here believe that the Aramaic "Western Five" are superior to the Greek text?

7) Does anyone here believe the Syriac OT is superior to the Hebrew?

<!-- s8) --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/cool.gif" alt="8)" title="Cool" /><!-- s8) --> Why does the Syriac OT substitute Elohim with YWY (Syriac name of God?)? Didn't the translators know the difference between a name and a title (You really, totally and completely lost me here)? How do you pronounce YWY anyways (no vowel points)? Or do you, like in the Hebrew, substitute Adonai for YWY, which was substituted for the Hebrew Elohim? <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/rolleyes.gif" alt="" title="Roll Eyes" /><!-- s --> Why does the Syriac OT you provided here use Hebrew letters, not Syriac?

9) Although i read that this Forum is "Theologically neutral", do most of the Aramaic Primacy believers come from the "Church of the East"? Are there any famous adherents outside of the HACACotE?

10) Before i forget, is there any kind of complete reference for differences between the Greek and the Syriac texts?

11) Assuming the Syriac is the Original NT, which Greek Manuscript comes closest to the Syriac text?

12) Can anyone provide me with a list of (preferably published) books pro Aramaic Primacy / con Aramaic Primacy? The more books on the list, the better.

Consider Yourselves lucky, i forgot some of my questions for now. i may still ask tem later though...

Thanks a lot for any answered questions.