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"I AM" Exodus 3.14 and Jhon 8:24/8:58
#16
YHWH is the imperfect, third-person form of an ancient root HWH which shared meaning with HYH.
Ehyeh is derived from HYH and YHWH is derived from HWH.
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#17
Aaron S Wrote:YHWH is the imperfect, third-person form of an ancient root HWH which shared meaning with HYH.
Ehyeh is derived from HYH and YHWH is derived from HWH.

Ok, that makes more sense, thanks. And I'm still open to more info anyone may have. In the meantime I'll do more research.
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#18
If (eh:yeh) is "I-AM", has anyone ever wondered why it is translated as "I-will-be" in the 40 or so occurances outside of Ex 3:14. Is it possible that the English translators embellished Ex 3:14 to fit a preconceived idea, rather than let the Hebrew grammar itself define the word?
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#19
I believe it is explained thus:
It is called the imperfect tense which can be either rendered (as we understand it) to the present or future tense.
It is said that the context here allows for either translation, and perhaps that both are intended in its meaning.
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#20
I had a Hebrew instructor tell me that he didn't think (eh:yeh) in Ruth 2:13 could be translated as "I-to-be", but only as "I-am". For myself, I think the verse is inconclusive on that, for it reads coherently both as "not I-to-be as-one-of thy-maids", and as "not I-am as-one-of thy-maids".

In Ex 3:14, my take is that YHWH is not really giving out his name to Moses, but instead saying something to the effect of, "I-to-be whom I-to-be", and then "thus thou-to-say to-the-sons-of Yisrael, 'I-to-be' sent-me to-you". Then, in Ex 3:15 he transitions from (eh:yeh) to "YHWH the-God-of your-fathers"; which he then refers to as "his-name".

Another option I have explored for the Hebrew imperfect is that "I-to-be", or "I-will-be" as commonly translated, might be more like "I-beith". Which is sort of an archaic English "stative" verb, one without tense. "... I-beith whom I-beith. Thus thou-saith to-the-sons-of Yisrael, 'I-beith' sent-me to-you." But I've made these same suppositions on the perfect verb as well, so I remain a bit undecided on the matter.
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#21
Just imagine if we had the original "book of the law"/Torah that Moses wrote and King Josiah found.... I imagine it would clear up many misunderstandings, even though they had the strongest scribal traditions, which then makes me wonder why YHWH found it unnesessary to preserve the original?
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