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Hi in ephesians 5-20, in the peshitta it saids ' giving thanks for all men' this is diferent to the king james which says 'giving thanks for all things'. I am reminded of a scripture in 1 timothy 2-1 from lamsa ' I beseech you, therefore, first of all to offer to God, petitions, prayers, supplications and thanksgiving for all men' . So thankfully the peshitta to me, is correct.
Any comments from anyone.
Sorry, is it more correct to put this in mistranslations ?
Though I do not know aramaic
Shlama akhi,

i think maybe this is just an example of the Greek translator using dynamic equivalence in translation, as the Greek uses the term panton, which can mean "every one" (of a thing), and thus be in the Aramaic sense of "all men." to me, this would be useful as yet another example where information seems to be diminished when going from Aramaic to Greek. since clarification of information is rarely ever gained in the translation process, i would say this is useful in that regards more than being a mistranslation.

but that's just my perspective!

Chayim b'Moshiach,

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