before I begin

[Kara]

No, we know that the greek versions were in state of flux. You have no evidence that this was the case with the peshitta.

Peace and blessings, Judge.

I will assume that I am untutored in the Syriac tradition. I will also assume that you have evidence that (a) the Syriac and Greek scribal traditions were fundamentally different (b) the Syriac Gospels existed before Tatian's Diatessaron, in their present form, until now © the Syriac Gospels were not creative translations of the Greek Gospels. By ©, I mean that the wordplays, puns, etc, as cited by Aramaic primacists, are not textual corruptions attempting to restore the original idiom lost in the Greek Gospels (which themselves could be a bad translation of the "original" Palestinian-Aramaic Gospels).


I do appreciate your patience and consideration. Your response is most anticipated.