04-19-2010, 12:34 AM
I read once, and IIRC it may have been here, that the talmud(?) tells us that for logistical reasons galileans celebrated the passover a day before(?) judeans. Does anyone know about this, or have reference (was this possibly discused in Andrews first book?).
Does this explain why Mark has Jesus and the disciples eating the passover the day before Jesus died and John seems to have the passover on the day Jesus dies?
Added in edit:
I found this which seems to be an answer.
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://books.google.com.au/books?id=6z-NcR7fVSIC&pg=PA88&lpg=PA88&dq=passover+galileans+talmud+john&source=bl&ots=8ot4cOZvhd&sig=lvTO8LHzj08ZyBR7KZrxvc0X60Y&hl=en&ei=CazLS_eQM4vq7APMiI33Ag&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=3&ved=0CAsQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=passover%20galileans%20talmud%20john&f=false">http://books.google.com.au/books?id=6z- ... hn&f=false</a><!-- m -->
Does this explain why Mark has Jesus and the disciples eating the passover the day before Jesus died and John seems to have the passover on the day Jesus dies?
Added in edit:
I found this which seems to be an answer.
<!-- m --><a class="postlink" href="http://books.google.com.au/books?id=6z-NcR7fVSIC&pg=PA88&lpg=PA88&dq=passover+galileans+talmud+john&source=bl&ots=8ot4cOZvhd&sig=lvTO8LHzj08ZyBR7KZrxvc0X60Y&hl=en&ei=CazLS_eQM4vq7APMiI33Ag&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=3&ved=0CAsQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=passover%20galileans%20talmud%20john&f=false">http://books.google.com.au/books?id=6z- ... hn&f=false</a><!-- m -->