Mark 14:12 first or before?

[distazo]

Shlama,

I would translate Mark 14:12 as either "the first day" or "in the first day", thus: "In the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, in which the Jews sacrificed the Passover lamb, his disciples asked him, Where is it you wish us to go that we make the preparations to eat the Passover?"

The word "[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymdq[/font]" means "first", Paul's Interlinear says "[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ymdq 0mwybw[/font]" which literally means "and in first day" {I can't seem to get the fonts to appear properly}

Murdock and Etheridge say "on the first day of unleavened cakes"

I believe it would be stretching the Aramaic beyond it's original intention should we use the word "before" in this verse. The Hebrew translation of the Aramaic I have before me agrees with Paul's Interlinear where it says "and in day the first" (and in the first day)

Thank you for your comment, but you understand that this is contradictional with John?

As some one here commented already, I try to think 'outside the box' <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

Why would Mark make such a uncareful remark? The first day of unleavened bread, would be the day of the slaughter of the lamb. However, Jesus was killed on the 14th.
So, this would make the eating of the last supper, happen on the same day as the renting of the room.


So, if the lexicon allows 'before' I cannot understand why Paul or another did not choose 'before' for the sake of historical correctness and on par with John.
Or is the translation 'before' just a simple: NO NO?

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