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John 5:30 'as I hear I judge'?
The Aramaic word for 'hear' also can mean obey.

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It does not quite make sense (or does it? Please enlight me) that Jeshua said: "As I hear so I judge"
Why does it make sense? (I think) Because Jeshua said: "I do nothing of myself..." so, what he did, he did in obeisance to Father. And he did it so perfect, that his judgement would be okay.
When we translate 'hear' it sounds stranges. How can Jeshua judge on base of 'hearing' while he can see everything?

Could it not be translated like: "As I obey I judge" (or I judge as I obey)?

Thanks for any thoughts on this.,
"Hear" can also be used idiomatically as "understand."
Hi, I believe Jesus was in communion with his Father, in john 8-16, jesus says that the father is with him when he was judging. As a man jesus had to trust in God and overcome. Likewise God wants us to do the same. Jesus had to overcome as a man even though he was also a man. I believe that Jesus was not judjing alone, on his own but with the Father. The best we can do is ask the holy spirit for an answer to all our questions, he will lead us into all truth. From the scriptures the holy spirit also hears what Jesus is saying, and then speaks those words to us. John 16-13 "He will not speak on his own, he will speak only what he hears' we serve an amazing God.

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