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1 Corinthians 11:20 and Rev 1:10 (Day of the Lord)
#1
Both verses, (Revelation taken from crawford manuscript) have 'Day of the Lord' however, in a different context.

In Corinthians, there is mention of unholy behavior on the Lords supper (Day of the Lord) and in Revelation, John writes that 'at the day of the Lord' he got a vision.

I don't suppose these two 'days of the lord' are not the same, meaning 'Sunday'. Right?

Who can give definite explanation?

Thanks!
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#2
distazo Wrote:Both verses, (Revelation taken from crawford manuscript) have 'Day of the Lord' however, in a different context.

In Corinthians, there is mention of unholy behavior on the Lords supper (Day of the Lord) and in Revelation, John writes that 'at the day of the Lord' he got a vision.

I don't suppose these two 'days of the lord' are not the same, meaning 'Sunday'. Right?

Who can give definite explanation?

Thanks!

Shlama Akhi:
In Crawford Revelation 1:10 it reads "d???khad - b???shaba", or "the first of the week" and that is Sunday. In I Corinthians 11:20 it reads "layomah d'Maran", or "day of the LORD". It has been assumed that this is an equivalence because the Greek Revelation 1:10 reads "Day of the LORD". Traditionally, amongst the Jews and Assyrian Church of the East, Shabbat is the "Day of the LORD's rest", while western Christianity celebrates the resurrection of our LORD, as "The LORD's Day" and has confused the issue by calling Sunday "the Christian Sabbath". This may not be a definitive answer but it exposes the root of the discrepancy.

Shlama,
Stephen
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