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Romans 12:19. What was Paul's source?

May I ask you what siginificance it might be whether Paul was quoting from the LXX(Greek Old Testament) or some other text family??

Your comments from another thread (as well as this one)has roused my curiosity. I have alos given this some thought as well and even did my own personal study on it. Now, I am not sure if there is any real major significance whether Paul (or any other NT writer for that matter) makes use of the Greek LXX or the Hebrew MT for his quotes from the Old Testament. Why?? Because Paul may well have been qouting straight from a Hebrew text source (or Hebrew family text type) different from the Hebrew MT.

To my knowledge the discovery of the DSS has showed us the Hebrew (family) texts that were underneath the Greek LXX translations; and thus, placing the argument for NT Greek Primacy on a fragile foundation. IOW, we see the possibility(probablility) that when the NT authors wrote quotes from the Old Testament - they were not neccessarily going to the Greek LXX but to the Hebrew LXX - if you know what I am trying to express.

I have read that for many decades NT critical scholars believed that the Hebrew translators , when they translated the Hebrew into the Greek,(for the Septuagint - beginning in Alexandria) just did a lousy job in translation for they (the scholars) saw that in many places the Greek was off from the original Hebrew and that the scribes just paraphrased much of the text or that they(the scribes) took too much liberty in certain passages. But it was found out that it wasn't so much that they paraphrased or took too much liberty but that they had a DIFFERENT HEBREW TEXT TYPE.

I had always thought that some of the Aramaic New Testament quotes of the OT (in great many places) gave a pretty good reason to support Greek Primacy until I came across some information that stated many of the Hebrew MSs BEHIND the LXX were discovered at Qumran caves (or DSS). This gives the probable scenerio that the NT Aramaic authors were quoting from (not the Greek) but Hebrew text sources.

You seem to believe that because many Aramaic New Testament quotes of the Old Testament take on the LXX tradition , that - that means a good argument for NT Greek Primacy. My answer could likely be, "so what?" Am I correct on this assertion concerning your view?? Please help me out here if I am missing something and I would be grateful.

Have you read Paul Younan's article on the Aramaic and the LXX?? I believe this is under FAQ on this site.



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Re: Romans 12:19. What was Paul's source? - by Mike Kar - 03-03-2009, 08:19 PM

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