01-20-2009, 08:51 AM
In Matthew 24:7
Yeshua mentions 'earthquakes' during the endtime (before the temple fell down). However, except the earthquake of laodicea, I've not seen evidence of a rise of earthquakes in Judea.
The aramaic word behind it, also can mean 'sedition' or 'winter'.
So, would it not be 'sedition' because of the fact that the jews indeed caused seditions (against the Roman empire)?
Yeshua mentions 'earthquakes' during the endtime (before the temple fell down). However, except the earthquake of laodicea, I've not seen evidence of a rise of earthquakes in Judea.
The aramaic word behind it, also can mean 'sedition' or 'winter'.
So, would it not be 'sedition' because of the fact that the jews indeed caused seditions (against the Roman empire)?