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Short question for Paul Younan about Peleepos
#1
February 1, 2009

In your translation of John 14:9 you have "Peleepa?". Is this an example of the "Emphatic Aramaic" case version of Peleepos?

Thanks for you helpful comments...

Otto
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#2
ograabe Wrote:February 1, 2009

In your translation of John 14:9 you have "Peleepa?". Is this an example of the "Emphatic Aramaic" case version of Peleepos?

Thanks for you helpful comments...

Otto

Shlama Akhi Otto,

Yes. In Aramaic, the vocative is represented by the Emphatic state. Please see example from the original Aramaic of Daniel 2:4 below (the red is the normal state, M-L-K (king) and the blue is the Emphatic (in place of the Vocative because the king was being addressed directly). Notice the Emphatic state (the Aleph on the end, making it M-L-K-A)


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+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#3
Akhi Otto,

There are many other examples as well. Check out Daniel 2:29, 2:37, 3:4, etc.

That is also the reason why Meshikha in Mark 14:36 calls upon God as "Abba", in the Emphatic (Vocative), instead of "Ab" (the root, or construct state for father). In Aramaic whenever someone is addressed directly their name or title is in the Emphatic.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#4
Shlama Akhi Otto,

I've got a question for you on a related note.

In the Greek version of Acts 5:1 and 5:3, we find the name "Ananias" in the Nominative (5:1) and Vocative (5:3 while being directly addressed), as one would expect in the case of proper Greek grammar.

Why does the Peshitta contain the Emphatic in both verses for his name?
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#5
Dear Paul,

My guess is that in Aramaic the nominative case of this name happens to end with an aleph in Aramaic. The proper name apparently refers to God. No additional aleph is needed for the emphatic case.

Isn't "Yeshua" the same in both nominative and emphatic cases in Aramaic unlike the Greek?

Otto
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#6
Shlama Akhi Otto,

ograabe Wrote:My guess is that in Aramaic the nominative case of this name happens to end with an aleph in Aramaic. The proper name apparently refers to God. No additional aleph is needed for the emphatic case.


Precisely, therefore there exists no orthographic reason to alter the name when in the Vocative (Emphatic). But in the Greek, the Nominative in verse Acts 5:1 required the addition of the S to the Semitic name, and the Vocative required the unnatural "-eie" suffix. Just features of each individual grammar, that's all.

But there exists more interesting points here. Every language has peculiarities when dealing with names of foreign origin. For instance, when Hebrew names are spelled in Aramaic, often times the final Yodh (in names like "Khanan-Yah" (Yah is Mericiful) or Zechariah), is replaced with an Aleph. In that sense the Aramaic orthography places more emphasis on phonetics.

When names of Greek origin, like Peleepos, Theophilos....or Latin names like Cornelius, are spelled in Aramaic the basic form is normally that of the Nominative.

ograabe Wrote:Isn't "Yeshua" the same in both nominative and emphatic cases in Aramaic unlike the Greek?

Otto

Yes, normally in Aramaic Semitic proper names are not altered when in the Vocative.

However, names of foreign origin (particularly Greek and Latin) because they end in a S (Semkath) are normally altered to end with an A (Aleph) when in the Vocative. This is to make them Emphatic ("O Cornelius!")

There is a similar feature in Arabic as well, although not affecting orthography. In Arabic the Emphatic (Vocative) is usually prepended with "ya" as in "Ya Cornelius!" ("O Cornelius!")

If the Aramaic was simply following Greek grammar rules, and showing itself to be a translation from the Greek, then the names would end in a Yodh to reflect phonetically the Greek Vocative "-eie" sound. ("Cornelie") But they don't end in a Yodh, they end in the Aramaic Emphatic Aleph.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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#7
Dear Paul,

Thanks for the grammar lesson!

Sincerely,

Otto
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