10-10-2008, 04:17 AM
Shlama,
In 1st Corinthians 11:2 and 2nd Thessalonians 2:15, the word [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ndqwp[/font] is used, and Murdock and Etheridge both translate it as ???precepts.???
The majority of instances of this word, however, as found in the Gospels, are rightfully translated as ???commandments.???
My question is would it be better to translate it as ???commandments??? in these two instances as opposed to the aforementioned ???precepts,??? or even ???traditions/ordinances,??? as the Greek normally is rendered?
if it would be more consistent to do this, would the meaning of the two above passages take on a different light (ie, meaning the Torah)? this would make the most sense to me, but i would very much appreciate the thoughts of others on this.
Chayim b???Moshiach,
Jeremy
In 1st Corinthians 11:2 and 2nd Thessalonians 2:15, the word [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0ndqwp[/font] is used, and Murdock and Etheridge both translate it as ???precepts.???
The majority of instances of this word, however, as found in the Gospels, are rightfully translated as ???commandments.???
My question is would it be better to translate it as ???commandments??? in these two instances as opposed to the aforementioned ???precepts,??? or even ???traditions/ordinances,??? as the Greek normally is rendered?
if it would be more consistent to do this, would the meaning of the two above passages take on a different light (ie, meaning the Torah)? this would make the most sense to me, but i would very much appreciate the thoughts of others on this.
Chayim b???Moshiach,
Jeremy