09-16-2008, 10:43 PM
IMO "speaking in tongues" is most likely referring actual human languages. What I don't agree with is that this gift of "multi-lingualism" was reserved for the 1st century exclusively. Why? Surely this gift was useful and utilized both in the 1st century, today and all the time in between, I don't think the Gospel could've gone very far if it wasn't and isn't.