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So what difference does Aramaic primacy really make?
Hi all,
I've been following this site for several years and am 99% convinced (enough to start learning Aramaic and change my view of my Nestle Greek NT). But having read all the evidences, its left me wondering a little- "so what?" I'm sure that working with the Aramaic unlocks the real meaning of passages so that a small % of the NT now makes sense which it doesn't in Greek. Great. But does it actually make a large enough difference to *really* matter? ie for most purposes isn't the Greek ok? Why or why not? (No I'm not Greek- I'm Aussie-Irish-German). I'm not trying to be funny here, but trying to understand the implications. Does it matter that much that we need to teach Aramaic at theology schools instead of Greek? In what way? What other impacts should it all have??

Also, since by implication of Aramaic primacy, Greek chiastic structures must therefore be based on underlying Aramaic structures, what other Aramaic structures and worldview issues have been missed by the Greek (ie, global level, not just the 20-30 good single verse examples on this site).

Maybe this has been answered before but I couldn't see it.

in Christ,
Fr. John D'Alton
Antiochian Orthodox priest, and President of Melbourne Institute for Orthodox Christian Studies.

Messages In This Thread
So what difference does Aramaic primacy really make? - by frjdalton - 09-08-2008, 01:22 PM
Kudos to Christina - by Stephen Silver - 09-09-2008, 09:32 PM

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