08-19-2008, 06:08 PM
Shlama Akhi Mark,
Are you really suggesting that the 2nd word in the very first book of the OT is of pagan origin? Because in the Hebrew, the 2nd word used after "berisheth" is "Elohim", which is the Hebrew version of the Aramaic "Alaha" and the Arabic "Allah" and the English "God."
I really don't think you understand what you are referring to.
I already answered this question several times. I will, once again, for your benefit - but please pay attention this time. Firstly, YHWH means nothing in Aramaic - it's a Hebrew word with a specific meaning. Secondly, prior to NT times the tradition was well established that in Aramaic the name of God was abbreviated or otherwise coded. MarYah in the NT is no different than YWY in Targum Onkelos or YY in Targum Yonathan or "Jehovah" in modern English translations.
It has been answered, you've just not paid attention. Why the use of "God" in the original Hebrew of Genesis 1:1 ? Why the use of "Lord" in the Hebrew of countless OT passages?
Are you really suggesting that any of these titles are of pagan origin?
Something tells me we are going to have to put this up on the FAQ page, people. I think I've explained this a million times more than necessary.
Akhi Mark.....do Terah, Abraham, Sarah, Isaac, Jacob, Rachel and Leah count? Or, are the scriptures lying to us when they call these people Arameans?
Did the Hebrews arrive on this planet on a spaceship from Mars, or from an already existing Aramean population in the middle east?
+Shamasha
markt Wrote:I asked why the translators use the pagan words Lord and God.
Are you really suggesting that the 2nd word in the very first book of the OT is of pagan origin? Because in the Hebrew, the 2nd word used after "berisheth" is "Elohim", which is the Hebrew version of the Aramaic "Alaha" and the Arabic "Allah" and the English "God."
I really don't think you understand what you are referring to.
markt Wrote:Why use MarYah when YHWH is original?
I already answered this question several times. I will, once again, for your benefit - but please pay attention this time. Firstly, YHWH means nothing in Aramaic - it's a Hebrew word with a specific meaning. Secondly, prior to NT times the tradition was well established that in Aramaic the name of God was abbreviated or otherwise coded. MarYah in the NT is no different than YWY in Targum Onkelos or YY in Targum Yonathan or "Jehovah" in modern English translations.
markt Wrote:My question has still not been answered, why the use of Lord and God.
It has been answered, you've just not paid attention. Why the use of "God" in the original Hebrew of Genesis 1:1 ? Why the use of "Lord" in the Hebrew of countless OT passages?
Are you really suggesting that any of these titles are of pagan origin?
markt Wrote:Please tell me who spoke Aramaic before the first Hebrew speaker?
Something tells me we are going to have to put this up on the FAQ page, people. I think I've explained this a million times more than necessary.
Akhi Mark.....do Terah, Abraham, Sarah, Isaac, Jacob, Rachel and Leah count? Or, are the scriptures lying to us when they call these people Arameans?
Did the Hebrews arrive on this planet on a spaceship from Mars, or from an already existing Aramean population in the middle east?
+Shamasha