07-07-2008, 02:09 PM
Paul, knowledgeable Peshitta historians et al,
I've been reading Moffett's "Christianity in Asia,volume 1" and notice that Moffett's position towards the Peshitta seems to be the usual Western view towards Greek primacy. That is, he takes the road that the Aramaic/Syriac scriptures are translations from Greek texts. Now, Moffett has obviously done quite a bit of research in producing his work, which heretofore has been a great read. My question then is where is/are the COE's first and earliest self-declaration(s) that Aramaic is the original language of the New Covenant scriptures? Moffett apparently did not come across such historical documents, or at least any which significantly altered his view towards Greek primacy.
As always, I sincerely appreiciate everyone's time in answering my questions. I am sure there will be others questions that come from my reading of his book. Like I said, it has been interesting to say the least.
Shlama
I've been reading Moffett's "Christianity in Asia,volume 1" and notice that Moffett's position towards the Peshitta seems to be the usual Western view towards Greek primacy. That is, he takes the road that the Aramaic/Syriac scriptures are translations from Greek texts. Now, Moffett has obviously done quite a bit of research in producing his work, which heretofore has been a great read. My question then is where is/are the COE's first and earliest self-declaration(s) that Aramaic is the original language of the New Covenant scriptures? Moffett apparently did not come across such historical documents, or at least any which significantly altered his view towards Greek primacy.
As always, I sincerely appreiciate everyone's time in answering my questions. I am sure there will be others questions that come from my reading of his book. Like I said, it has been interesting to say the least.
Shlama