10-28-2013, 08:37 AM
Ok...Brother, but If that is what you were thinking of, it does not say what you said, though.
You said this in those two quotes: 1st: "My father will never leave me" 2nd: "the Father never would forsake him". But, He did not say that though. He said that The Father is "with Him", and it was certainly true, and had been so, but, does that statement have to mean that it would or could never happen? Perhaps Jesus didn't know that it was going to happen on the Cross, if it did happen that The Father separated from Him in some way, right before He tasted death (died).
Now, I don't think (if it did happen this way) that The Father "forsook" Jesus in anyway, as if He "rejected" Him somehow. That is not what I am saying here...but, only that He departed from Him in some way, which was felt by Jesus in His humanity. Remember, in His Divinity, He was GOD The Word/The Miltha. Being One with The Father and The Holy Spirit. I.e. He being part of The Trinity, as to His Divine Nature.
So...look ---> We know that the verse in Hebrews 2:9, as found in the Eastern Aramaic Peshitta, and mentioned by Origen, as being present in the early 3rd century (240 A.D.) Greek Manuscripts, and which says this: ---> "...for, apart from Alaha, for every man, He tasted death."
My thoughts on a possible connection to being "apart from Alaha" on the Cross, when Jesus dies (tasted death), and Alaha departing from Jesus on the Cross, just before He dies (tasted death).
1: Do we say that The Father tasted death too, when His Son, in His humanity, tasted death? Does Eternal God, in His divinity, die by the hands of men? Can man kill God? I think not. I say they killed God's only begotten Son...but, only His humanity, not His divinity.
2: Notice that Jesus said this right before He tasted death, (lets say it was) "My God, My God, why have you departed from me?" Which words in English the Aramaic allows that it be translated, and this would make perfect sense, if Jesus indeed was apart from God at that moment, right before He died, as Hebrews 2:9 says. He then entrusts His spirit into The Father's care, and dies in His humanity a few seconds later.
3: So no, He isn't "forsaken", as if He is rejected by God, His Father, but there does seem to have been a separation right before He tasted death, as Heb 2:9 indicates.
Is this not possible? And if not, please show me why not?
Shlama,
Chuck
.
You said this in those two quotes: 1st: "My father will never leave me" 2nd: "the Father never would forsake him". But, He did not say that though. He said that The Father is "with Him", and it was certainly true, and had been so, but, does that statement have to mean that it would or could never happen? Perhaps Jesus didn't know that it was going to happen on the Cross, if it did happen that The Father separated from Him in some way, right before He tasted death (died).
Now, I don't think (if it did happen this way) that The Father "forsook" Jesus in anyway, as if He "rejected" Him somehow. That is not what I am saying here...but, only that He departed from Him in some way, which was felt by Jesus in His humanity. Remember, in His Divinity, He was GOD The Word/The Miltha. Being One with The Father and The Holy Spirit. I.e. He being part of The Trinity, as to His Divine Nature.
So...look ---> We know that the verse in Hebrews 2:9, as found in the Eastern Aramaic Peshitta, and mentioned by Origen, as being present in the early 3rd century (240 A.D.) Greek Manuscripts, and which says this: ---> "...for, apart from Alaha, for every man, He tasted death."
My thoughts on a possible connection to being "apart from Alaha" on the Cross, when Jesus dies (tasted death), and Alaha departing from Jesus on the Cross, just before He dies (tasted death).
1: Do we say that The Father tasted death too, when His Son, in His humanity, tasted death? Does Eternal God, in His divinity, die by the hands of men? Can man kill God? I think not. I say they killed God's only begotten Son...but, only His humanity, not His divinity.
2: Notice that Jesus said this right before He tasted death, (lets say it was) "My God, My God, why have you departed from me?" Which words in English the Aramaic allows that it be translated, and this would make perfect sense, if Jesus indeed was apart from God at that moment, right before He died, as Hebrews 2:9 says. He then entrusts His spirit into The Father's care, and dies in His humanity a few seconds later.
3: So no, He isn't "forsaken", as if He is rejected by God, His Father, but there does seem to have been a separation right before He tasted death, as Heb 2:9 indicates.
Is this not possible? And if not, please show me why not?
Shlama,
Chuck
.