02-04-2008, 05:37 PM
Shlama all,
Albion wrote:
Actually, I was talking about the difference between The Peshitta and the majority Greek text, which is
most probably an understatement in hindsight. It may be more like a 7% difference between the Peshitta & Greek, based on the difference in numbers of pronouns, conjunctions & prepositions I have compiled, as a comparative index (The Peshitta has more of each of these).
The Peshitta and Peshitto have far fewer differnces than 1% if we overlook the difference in canons (22 books versus 27). Comparing the text they both contain (this excludes pericope adultera in John 7:53 -8:11), the differences are insignificant apart from a handful of verses where they differ. If there are ten verses in which a significant one word difference exists, which may actually be the case, there is only a 0.01% significant difference between the two Peshittas! That is 99.99% agreement! Let's assume that we can find ten times that number of significant differences. That would still be only 0.1% difference, or 99.90% agreement!
Of course, we could wrangle over the 5 books in the Western canon, but as Paul has pointed out, the COE has no official position about those books one way or the other. The value in the 2 Peshittas is that they agree so closely and are yet separate Bibles of separate divisions of the ancient Aramaean church going back to an original text almost 2000 years ago. The Greek tradition does not fare nearly as well. The Alexandrian and Byzantine Greek editions differ by 2% in their letter numbers. That is 7 times the letter number differences between The Khabouris Eastern Peshitta ms. and The Peshitto 1905 edition. Most of the letter number differences in the 2 Peshittas has to do with many pronoun enclitics attached to nouns in the Western text being separate pronouns in the Eastern text, which adds a letter or two each time, but does not change the meaning at all. This is a style difference between the 2 texts. Most of the letter differences in the two are not meaningful.
Blessings in our Lord,
Dave
Albion wrote:
Quote:Dave Bauscher says that there is "about a one percent difference" between the PeshittO and the PeshittA....."but it's a BIG one percent". <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->I think that Akhan Dave is right on about this.
Actually, I was talking about the difference between The Peshitta and the majority Greek text, which is
most probably an understatement in hindsight. It may be more like a 7% difference between the Peshitta & Greek, based on the difference in numbers of pronouns, conjunctions & prepositions I have compiled, as a comparative index (The Peshitta has more of each of these).
The Peshitta and Peshitto have far fewer differnces than 1% if we overlook the difference in canons (22 books versus 27). Comparing the text they both contain (this excludes pericope adultera in John 7:53 -8:11), the differences are insignificant apart from a handful of verses where they differ. If there are ten verses in which a significant one word difference exists, which may actually be the case, there is only a 0.01% significant difference between the two Peshittas! That is 99.99% agreement! Let's assume that we can find ten times that number of significant differences. That would still be only 0.1% difference, or 99.90% agreement!
Of course, we could wrangle over the 5 books in the Western canon, but as Paul has pointed out, the COE has no official position about those books one way or the other. The value in the 2 Peshittas is that they agree so closely and are yet separate Bibles of separate divisions of the ancient Aramaean church going back to an original text almost 2000 years ago. The Greek tradition does not fare nearly as well. The Alexandrian and Byzantine Greek editions differ by 2% in their letter numbers. That is 7 times the letter number differences between The Khabouris Eastern Peshitta ms. and The Peshitto 1905 edition. Most of the letter number differences in the 2 Peshittas has to do with many pronoun enclitics attached to nouns in the Western text being separate pronouns in the Eastern text, which adds a letter or two each time, but does not change the meaning at all. This is a style difference between the 2 texts. Most of the letter differences in the two are not meaningful.
Blessings in our Lord,
Dave