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Matthew 26:26, this is my body

I was recently reading on a blog about a "teacher" who took his/her students to see Mel Gibson's "The Passion". The "teacher" relates how the students reacted after they heard Yeshua speaking the words of Matthew 26:26 (or possibly Mark 14:24),

"As my students watched the film's depiction of the Last Supper, their jaws dropped. It was the first time these young, bright, Catholic students realised what I was teaching them was true ??? that Rabbi Jesus did not imply, intend or infer that the matzot bread and wine had magically become his body and blood at all. His words, in the Aramaic, were not 'This is my Body,' or 'This is my Blood,' as has been the corrupted interpretation on which the Christian context of 'Holy Communion' was developed. Instead, my students heard for themselves (what they could have read for themselves in the Peshitta): 'This represents my flesh sacrifice,' and 'This is the cup representing my blood sacrifice.'"

???? ?????? ?????????? ?????? ???????? ???????? ???????? ???????? ???????? ?????????????????? ???????? ?????? ?????????? ?????? ????????

Biblia Peshitta translates this as "Tomen y coman, esto es mi cuerpo." .... Take and (you) eat, this is my body"

From Aramaic: "Take eat, this is my body." I tend to translate literally, and often people tell me I translate too literally. But is this too literal?

Paul's Interlinear, "Take eat this is my body"

Murdock, "Take, eat; this is my body"

Lamsa, "Take, eat; this is my body"

I can not find any justification at all for what the above "teacher" is saying about "this represents my flesh sacrifice". I have no idea what "Peshitta" this person is reading, and I doubt he/she can even read Aramaic or Syriac to justify his/her claims.

I realize the topic borderlines theological debate concerning the Sacraments "representing" or having the "true/actual presence" or "becoming" the Body and Blood of Maran, but that is not my intention. I'm just wondering if anyone else has run into this type of interpretation before? and what your thoughts are on the Aramaic? It seems that it is forcing the text to read something that's simply not there. I did a search in the forum here and couldn't find any related threads.

You're right, it's quite a liberal translation to insert "represent" there - the Aramaic is very simple.

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